OLS376: Study Guide Questions Chapter 11 to 16 In Tutorial Library

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TITLE: OLS376: Study Guide Questions Chapter 11 to 16


CLASS / COURSE: Supervision Management


Chapter 11
1) Employees can sue employers who deliberately mislead them about health and welfare benefits.
       a) True
       b) False
2) Workers who are laid off are eligible for 52 weeks of unemployment insurance per occurrence.
       a) True
       b) False
3) If an employee takes a leave of absence under the Family and Medical Leave Act, the employer must continue the employee's medical benefits for the duration of the leave.
       a) True
       b) False
4) Under the Family and Medical Leave Act, an employee returning to work does not necessarily have to be restored to his or her original job.
       a) True
       b) False
5) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act grants employees the right to switch their medical insurance between former and present employers.
       a) True
       b) False
6) The "payment for time not worked" category of benefits includes all absences from work except for sick leave and personal days taken by employees.
       a) True
       b) False
7) All workers are guaranteed at least ten paid holidays each year.
       a) True
       b) False
8) Severance pay is considered a supplemental unemployment benefit.
       a) True
       b) False
9) At the present time, employers are required to provide pension plans to all full-time employees.
       a) True
       b) False
10) In a defined-contribution pension plan, the amount an employee is to receive upon retirement is specifically set forth.
       a) True
       b) False
11) A 401(k) plan allows employees the opportunity to build a tax-sheltered savings fund.
       a) True
       b) False
12) Employee benefits are a form of:
a. direct compensation
b. indirect compensation
c. variable pay
d. mandatory pay programs
13) Which of the following benefits are not legally required employee benefits?
a. employer contributions to Social Security
b. employer contributions to unemployment insurance
c. employer contributions to workers’ compensation insurance
d. employer contributions to minimum life insurance
14) The Social Security insurance program is funded by:
a. employer contributions.
b. employee contributions.
c. employee contributions with matching employer contributions.
d. employee contributions and general tax funds.
15) Individuals can receive Social Security benefits as early as age:
a. 58
b. 62
c. 65
d. 67
16) Unemployment compensation payments to individuals vary according to:
a. the type of job held before layoff.
b. their previous wage rate and length of previous employment.
c. job type and length of previous employment.
d. their previous wage rate and the type of job held before layoff.
17) One of the limitations of the federal Family and Medical Leave Act is that it only applies to those companies that have ____ or more employees during 20 or more calendar workweeks in the current or preceding year.
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
18) Under the Family and Medical Leave Act, if an employee is returned to an equivalent job, rather than their original job, it must have:
a. identical pay, benefits, and terms of employment
b. identical pay and promotional opportunity
c. identical pay and benefits
d. identical pay, benefits, terms of employment, and promotional opportunity
19) If after one year an employee has not spent all the money in his or her health savings account:
a. the money goes back to the employer, helping the employer contain costs
b. the money is forfeited
c. the savings are rolled over to the following year, growing in value
d. the money can be withdrawn and placed in the employees retirement account
20) Holiday pay, sick leave, and vacation pay are examples of:
a. payment for time not worked
b. benefits required by law
c. categories of health care benefits
d. unearned benefits
21) Both hourly and salaried workers can usually be expected to be paid for ____ holidays a year.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
22) A plan that enables an employee who is laid off to draw, in addition to state unemployment compensation, weekly benefits from the employer that are paid from a fund created for this purpose is referred to as:
a. severance pay
b. supplemental unemployment benefits (sub's)
c. leave insurance compensation
d. unemployment protection payments.
23) A pension plan where contributions are made jointly by employees and employers is referred to as a:
a. contributory plan
b. noncontributory plan
c. defined-benefit plan
d. defined-contribution plan
24) A pension plan where contributions are made solely by the employer is referred to as a:
a. contributory plan
b. noncontributory plan
c. defined-benefit plan
d. defined-contribution plan
25) Vesting guarantees:
a. withdrawal of benefits at any time.
b. automatic funding of pension plans.
c. accrued pension benefits at retirement age.
d. selection of pension options.
Chapter 12
1) The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) covers all employers in all states.
a) True
b) False
2) OSHA violations are categorized into three types: Willful, Serious, Minor.
a) True
b) False
3) The incidence rate of injury and illness is calculated by dividing the number of injuries and illnesses by 200,000 (which equals the base number for 100 workers working 40 hours/week, 50 weeks/year).
a) True
b) False
4) Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) provides a system for communicating data on health hazards to employees.
a) True
b) False
5) OSHA requirements mandate that employers with eleven or more employees maintain records of occupational injuries and illnesses.
a) True
b) False
6) Recordable cases that must be reported on OSHA Form 300 include any injury or illness treated with first aid.
a) True
b) False
7) Alcoholism is classified as a disability under ADA.
a) True
b) False
8) The Occupational Safety and Health Act covers all of the following employers except:
a. the federal government.
b. airlines.
c. railroads.
d. private colleges and universities.
9) On-site consultation may qualify employers for a _____ year exemption from routine OSHA inspection.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
10) The number of injuries and illnesses per 100 full-time employees during a given year is:
a. illness rate
b. accident rate
c. incidence rate
d. safety rate
11) Laws that require employers to disclose relevant safety information to employees are known as:
a. wellness laws.
b. right-to-know laws.
c. admission laws.
d. hazardous data laws.
12) Injury and Illness Report form is also known as:
a. OSHA Form 300
b. OSHA Form 301
c. OSHA Form 302
d. OSHA Form 303
13) Which of the following would not be considered a "recordable case" under OSHA law?
a. an employee killed on the job
b. a coal miner's "black lung" disease
c. an employee's broken leg suffered in a fall on a slippery spot on the plant floor
d. an employee's finger cut at home
14) Injuries that result from workers using the same motions again and again are known as:
a. ambidextrous.
b. muscular dysfunctions.
c. cumulative trauma disorders.
d. systematic trauma.
Chapter 13
1) The employment-at-will doctrine states that either the employee or the employer may terminate the employment relationship for any reason.
a) True
b) False 
2) An implied contract may result from statements found in employee handbooks or other employment documents.
a) True
b) False 
3) Whistle-blowing is a protected right of employees.
a) True
b) False 
4) The Workers' Adjustment Retraining and Notification Act (WARN) requires many employers to provide 60 days notice of plant closure and mass layoff.
a) True
b) False 
5) Employers can justify any intrusion into employee privacy by noting legitimate business interest.
a) True
b) False 
6) Workers who hold "sensitive" jobs, such as police officers and firefighters, can be required to submit to drug testing without probable cause.
a) True
b) False 
7) Absent legislation prohibiting drug testing, it can generally be said that employers have the right to require an employee to submit to a drug test where "probable cause" exists.
a) True
b) False 
8) Employees or job applicants who are addicted to legal drugs obtained legally, are protected under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
a) True
b) False 
9) U.S. courts have found random searches of employee lockers, suitcases, and toolboxes to be illegal.
a) True
b) False 
10) Employees are correct in assuming that their rights to privacy extend to e-mail and voice mail messages.
a) True
b) False 
11) Employers can discipline employees for off-duty conduct; however, there must be a relationship between the employee's behavior and its effect on the organization.
a) True
b) False 
12) Ombudsmen solve problems through negotiation and mediation activities between supervisors and subordinates.
a) True
b) False 
13) Employers have the right to monitor messages and materials created, received, or sent for business reasons:
a. but the law prohibits monitoring employees' e-mail, the internet, or voice mail
b. and they may also monitor employees' e-mail, the internet, and voice mail
c. but they are unable to review messages as long as the employee deletes them
d. except messages and materials created on the employee's non-work time (lunch, breaks, etc.)
14) In NLRB v Weingarten, Inc., the U.S. Supreme Court mandated that:
a. unionized employees have certain rights to representation when subjected to an investigatory interview.
b. once employers begin to investigate an employee through the use of interviews, it must interview all relevant witnesses.
c. all employees have a right to request representation when subjected to investigative interviewing.
d. employees also have a right to interview witnesses in order to refute charges against them.
15) Discipline programs designed to motivate an employee to correct his or her misconduct voluntarily are known as:
a. hot-stove programs.
b. progressive discipline programs.
c. respect-discipline programs.
d. step-help programs.
16) Before firing an employee, employers should apply:
a. principles of just cause.
b. standards of employment conduct.
c. rules of fair employment.
d. policies of equity and responsibility.
17) Alternative Dispute Resolution procedures, such as arbitration:
a. may be required of an employee by an employer in lieu of a lawsuit
b. are legal only with a collective bargaining agreement in a union environment
c. propose rather than impose a solution
d. are prohibited by the Civil Rights Act except with public employees
18) The individual who listens to employees' complaints and then tries to seek solutions through negotiation and mediation is known as a/an:
a. hearing officer.
b. employee assistance program counselor.
c. step-review coordinator.
d. ombudsman.
19) A set of standards of acceptable conduct and moral judgments is known as:
a. morals.
b. ethics.
c. rules.
d. legislation.
Chapter 14 
1) The Wagner Act created the National Labor Relations Board.
b) False
2) The Taft-Hartley Act was passed to place certain restraints on union practices.
b) False
3) During the election campaign, the employer may, without violating labor laws, stress the number of strikes the organizing union has engaged in and warn employees about the loss of income that could result from a strike.
b) False
4) Supervisors can legally attend union meetings.
b) False
5) NLRB election statistics show that currently unions win approximately 30 percent of representation elections.
b) False
6) Employee associations may function in the same way as unions, being just as aggressive in organizing and representing their members.
b) False
7) The AFL-CIO establishes the rules and regulations governing local unions.
b) False
8) The collective bargaining process may include activities such as strikes and boycotts.
b) False
9) During collective bargaining, each side normally places only their primary negotiator at the table.
b) False
10) Mandatory bargaining subjects include pay, conditions of employment, and any other issue both parties agree to discuss.
b) False
11) Bargaining based on identification and resolution of mutual interests is called traditional bargaining.
b) False
12) A boycott is a refusal to cross a union picket line.
b) False
13) During a strike, employers have a legal right to hire replacement workers.
b) False
14) A lockout occurs when employers hire replacement workers for striking employees.
b) False
15) Arbitration is the process of creating a collective bargaining agreement.
b) False
16) Compulsory membership provisions and dues checkoff are forms of union security.
b) False
17) Arbitration hearings are formal court proceedings, held in a court of law.
b) False
18) Recent statistics show total union membership to be about 33 percent of the civilian labor force.
b) False
19) The first federal law pertaining to labor relations was:
a. Norris-LaGuardia Act
b. Railway Labor Act
c. Taft-Hartley Act
d. Wagner Act
20) Which law severely restricts the ability of employers to obtain injunctions in labor relations?
a. Norris-LaGuardia Act
b. Conflict-Reduction Act
c. Landrum-Griffin Act
d. Cooperative Labor-Management Act
21) Illegal acts by either employers or unions are called:
a. discrimination complaints.
b. violation and resolve charges.
c. unfair labor practices.
d. representation charges.
22) Which act was passed to balance the rights and duties of labor and management in collective bargaining?
a. Wagner Act
b. Railway Labor Act
c. Taft-Hartley Act
d. Landrum-Griffin Act
23) A provision, where permitted, of a labor agreement that requires employees to join the union as a condition of employment is called:
a. a closed shop
b. a union shop
c. an agency shop
d. union checkoff
24) Employees indicate their willingness to be represented by a union by signing a/an:
a. stipulation card.
b. agreement card.
c. authorization card.
d. selection card.
25) If a newly certified union is unable to obtain a labor agreement within a year of winning its certification election, under the Taft-Hartley Act:
a. the union is decertified
b. the union representatives must be replaced with newly elected officials
c. employees must accept arbitration for every grievance until an agreement is reached
d. employees are allowed to vote the union out through a decertification election
26) A bargaining unit consists of:
a. employees being recruited by the union.
b. employees to be covered by the agreement.
c. hourly employees.
d. employees below the management level.
27) Once a union becomes certified, the employer is required to:
a. sign a labor agreement.
b. deduct union dues from the employees' paychecks.
c. begin negotiations leading toward a labor agreement.
d. notify employees of the bargaining relationship.
28) The legal right and responsibility to represent all bargaining unit members equally whether they join the union or not is referred to as:
a. union checkoff
b. exclusive representation
c. union certification
d. elective representation
29) The key difference between final-offer arbitration as opposed to compulsory binding arbitration is that with final-offer arbitration:
a. the decision is not binding
b. strikes are averted in critical jobs where they cannot be tolerated
c. a neutral third party arbitrator resolves deadlocks
d. each side submits their position and the arbitrator selects one or the other
30) Strikes, boycotts, lockouts, and plant closures may be used as economic pressure in:
a. the collective bargaining process
b. compulsory binding arbitration
c. negotiation preparation
d. public sector bargaining
31) Which act requires an employer to negotiate in good faith with the union’s representatives over conditions of employment?
a. Wagner Act
b. Railway Labor Act
c. Taft-Hartley Act
d. Landrum-Griffin Act
32) Good faith bargaining requires that:
a. each side's negotiators meet at any time and place to discuss issues
b. each side's negotiators meet at any time and a reasonable place to discuss issues
c. each side's negotiators meet at a reasonable time and reasonable place to discuss issues
d. an agreement be reached within a reasonable amount of time
33) Bargaining on all matters concerning rates of pay, wages, hours of employment, and other conditions of employment falls under:
a. permissive issues
b. adversarial bargaining
c. the bargaining zone
d. mandatory subjects
34) A third-party neutral who resolves labor disputes by issuing a final decision that the parties must accept is:
a. a mediator
b. an arbitrator
c. a union steward
d. a conciliator
Chapter 16
1) Training in high performance work systems focuses on arranging workflow and business processes.
a) True
b) False
2) The philosophies, principles, and techniques that underlie high-performance work systems are only appropriate for large organizations.
a) True
b) False
3) Which of the following principles are critical for the success of empowerment and involvement initiatives in organizations?
a. shared information
b. knowledge development
c. totalitarianism
d. linking rewards with performance
4) Connecting rewards to organizational performance ensures:
a. lower total labor costs.
b. fairness and focuses employees on the organization.
c. competitive wages in the market place.
d. lower employee turnover.
5) Work environments in which collaboration and teamwork are encouraged and status and power differences are diminished is known as:
a. an egalitarian environment.
b. an autocratic environment.
c. a democratic environment.
d. a self-actualization environment.
6) High-performance work systems frequently begin with:
a. selecting employees.
b. writing a mission statement.
c. employee training.
d. looking at how work is designed.
7) Many high-performance work systems begin with highly directive 
a. compensation policies.
b. work flow systems around family friendly principles.
c. recruitment and selection practices.
d. top-down communication systems.
8) Which of the following fundamental principles of high-performance work systems do small-sized employers tend to have difficulty implementing?
a. sharing information with employees
b. fostering an egalitarian work culture
c. linking pay to performance
d. none of the above
9) The key concept in a high-performance work system is based upon the _____.
b.level of competition for employees.
c.growth potential of the industry.

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