OLS376: Study Guide Questions Chapter 6 to 10 In Tutorial Library

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TITLE: OLS376: Study Guide Questions Chapter 6 to 10

UNIVERSITY / INSTITUTE: Purdue University

CLASS / COURSE: Supervision Management

QUESTION DESCRIPTION:

Chapter 6
TRUE/FALSE
 
1) If an organization's selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time, the procedures are valid.
       a) True
       b) False
 
2) Concurrent validity involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after they have been on the job for some indefinite period.
       a) True
       b) False
 
3) Predictive validity is assessed when the test scores of job applicants are held against the performance data for existing employees.
       a) True
       b) False
 
4) A validity coefficient of 0.00 indicates a complete absence of relationship between the predictor and criterion data.
       a) True
       b) False
 
5) The higher the overall validity of a selection procedure, the greater the chances of hiring individuals who will be the better performers.
       a) True
       b) False
 
6) Construct validity refers to the extent to which a selection tool measures a trait, such as intelligence and anxiety.
       a) True
       b) False
 
7) The Americans with Disabilities Act severely limits the types of medical inquiries and examinations that employers may use.
       a) True
       b) False
 
8) The Americans with Disabilities Act prevents the testing of job applicants for illegal drug use.
       a) True
       b) False
 
9) Aptitude tests measure what a person knows or can do right now.
       a) True
       b) False
 
10) Physical ability tests tend to predict performance, accidents, and injuries.
       a) True
       b) False
 
11) An interviewer who judges an individual favorably based on one strong point has committed a halo error.
       a) True
       b) False
 
12) The statistical approach to decision making is less objective than the clinical approach.
       a) True
       b) False
 
13) With a compensatory model, a low score on one selection test may not eliminate a candidate if he or she gets a high score on another test.
       a) True
       b) False
 
14) The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of applicants to be selected to the total number of applicants.
       a) True
       b) False
 
MULTIPLE CHOICES
 
15) Regardless of the selection methods used, it is essential that the selection procedure be:
a. engthy and thorough.
b. quick and efficient.
c.reliable and valid.
d. a positive experience for applicants.
 
16) The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over a period of time is known as:
a. onsistency.
b.reliability.
c.validity.
d.conformity.
 
17) The extent to which good performance on a test correlates with high marks on a performance review is an example of:
a.criterion-related validity.
b.content validity.
c.construct validity.
d.cross-validation.
 
18) Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an example of:
a.predictive validity.
b.concurrent validity.
c.content validity.
d.correlational validity.
 
19) The results of a validation study are usually reported in the form of a:
a.correlation coefficient.
b.validity indicator.
c.scale from 1 to 10.
d.standard deviation.
 
20) Validity coefficients range from:
a.0.00 to 1.00
b.1.00 to 10.00
c.1.00 to 5.00
d.-1.00 to +1.00
 
21) A validity coefficient of -1.00 indicates:
a.a complete lack of correlation
b.an error in math
c.a perfect negative correlation
d.a perfect positive correlation
 
22) The extent to which validity coefficients can be generalized across situations is called:
a.content validity
b.validity generalization
c.cross-validation
d.predictive validity
 
23) Which is the most direct and the least complicated type of validity to assess?
a.content validity
b.construct validity
c.criterion-related validity
d.concurrent validity
 
24) Application forms should be developed carefully and revised as often as necessary, because:
a.scoring variables need to be adjusted
b.the EEOC has found that many questions asked are not job-related
c.most forms are too long
d.the application must have validity in order for all other employment tests to be valid
 
25) Which of the following is inappropriate on an application form?
a.asking the applicant to provide high school, college, and post-college attendance
b.asking the applicant to disclose any prior arrests
c.asking the applicant to provide names, addresses, and phone numbers of references
d.asking the applicant to provide all work experience
 
26) The use of polygraph tests to screen applicants:
a.is recommended procedure for all potential employees.
b.should be used only in high-security employment areas.
c.is prohibited by federal law for most private employers.
d.is prohibited by executive order for government contractors only.
 
27) The Americans with Disabilities Act explicitly states that:
a.employers may not test for AIDS or the presence of HIV.
b.employers may question applicants about their physical suitability for the job.
c.employers may not test applicants for illegal drug use.
d.physical exams must be directly related to the requirements of the job.
 
28) Since the passage of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988:
a.drugs in the workplace have been prohibited.
b.employers are prohibited from conducting random drug tests.
c.all employees must submit to drug tests on demand.
d.applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use.
 
29) The type of interview that allows the applicant the maximum amount of freedom in determining the course of discussion is the:
a.nondirective interview.
b.depth interview.
c.situational interview.
d.structured interview.
 
30) The type of interview that provides the greatest consistency or standardization with respect to the questions asked is the:
a.nondirective interview.
b.situational interview.
c.structured interview.
d.unstructured interview.
 
31) The interview method that best reduces the possibility of discrimination is the:
a.behavioral description interview.
b.panel interview.
c.situational interview.
d.structured interview.
 
32) An interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident and is asked how he or she would respond to it is a:
a.computer interview.
b.panel interview.
c.situational interview.
d.nondirective interview.
 
33) Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question?
a.Have you ever worked under a different name?
b.If hired, can you prove your age?
c.What is your race?
d.What is your address?
 
34) “Can-Do” factors in selection decisions include:
a.skills
b.personality
c.values
d.motivation
 
35) A low selection ratio means:
a.the cutoff score for selection decisions will be relatively low.
b.there are very few qualified applicants.
c.only the most promising applicants will be hired.
d.little selectivity among applicants will be possible.
 
Chapter 7
TRUE/FALSE
 
1) Trainees should not practice their job tasks until after the training program is complete.
a) True
b) False
 
2) Effective training programs eliminate plateaus in the learning curves.
a) True
b) False
 
3) Benchmarking is concerned with measuring employee retention of training materials at specific points in time.
a) True
b) False
 
MULTIPLE CHOICE
 
4) An analysis of the sets of skills and knowledge needed for decision-oriented and knowledge-intensive jobs is referred to as:
a.task analysis
b.needs assessment
c.competency assessment
d.job analysis
 
5) Organization analysis, task analysis, and person analysis are all part of what phase of the system model?
a.training and development phase
b.analysis phase
c.needs assessment phase
d.evaluation phase
 
6) The desired outcomes of training programs are formally stated as:
a.training goals.
b.learning objectives.
c.instructional objectives.
d.learning goals.
 
7) Goal setting:
a.builds a bridge between employees and the organization
b.provides learning through repetition
c.sets a road map for the training course, objectives, and learning points
d.breaks down tasks to facilitate learning
 
8) Modeling:
a.builds a bridge between employees and the organization
b.demonstrates the desired behavior or method to be learnt
c.sets a road map for the training course, objectives, and learning points
d.breaks down tasks to facilitate learning
 
9) When we learn by watching others perform a task, this is known as:
a.modeling
b.active repetition
c.reinforcing behavior
d.individual style difference
 
10) Whole-vs-Part Learning:
a.builds a bridge between employees and the organization
b.provides learning through repetition
c.sets a road map for the training course, objectives, and learning points
d.breaks down tasks to facilitate learning
 
11) Spacing out the training will result in faster learning and longer retention. This is known as the principle of:
a.plateauing.
b.retention.
c.transfer of training.
d.distributed learning.
 
12) Periods in learning situations when progress does not occur because of either reduced motivation or ineffective methods of task performance are called:
a.learning blocks.
b.lapses.
c.plateaus.
d.learning gaps.
 
13) The objective of behavior modification is:
a.to gradually shape behavior toward a desired profile
b.to reward all task behavior
c.to apply principles learned in the classroom to the job
d.to bridge the needs of the employee with the needs of the organization
 
14) The appropriate training method for factual materials is:
a.lecture
b.simulation
c.on-the-job training
d.apprenticeships
 
15) The method of training used to train personnel to operate aircraft, spacecraft, and other highly technical and expensive equipment is the:
a.simulation method.
b.classroom method.
c.vestibule method.
d.apprenticeship method.
 
16) The most common method of training evaluation is assessing participant:
a.results
b.reactions
c.behavior
d.learning
 
17) The process of measuring one's own services and practices against the recognized leaders in order to identify areas for improvement is _____.
a.industry analysis
b.trend analysis
c.benchmarking
d.environmental analysis
 
18) Diversity training comes in two different forms:
a.equal employment and affirmative action
b.process and behavior
c.awareness building and skill building
d.minority and non-minority
 
19) The first step in task analysis is to:
a.define descriptive terms
b.reference other similar jobs
c.identify the skills required
d.list all the tasks or duties
 
20) Most learning curves are:
a.straight lines
b.mostly flat
c.irregularly shaped
d.nearly vertical
 
Chapter 8
TRUE/FALSE
1) An error of central tendency is a performance-rating error in which all employees are more or less rated as average.
a) True
b) False
 
2) Requiring raters to use a forced distribution reduces the chance of leniency or strictness errors.
a) True
b) False
 
3) Contrast errors are most likely when raters are required to rank employees in order from the best to the poorest.
a) True
b) False
 
4) Expressing appreciation for work the employee has done well is strongly related to employee satisfaction with the appraisal feedback.
a) True
b) False
 
MULTIPLE CHOICE
 
5) The two primary purposes of performance appraisals are:
a.informative and developmental.
b.managerial and administrative.
c.managerial and informative.
d.administrative and developmental.
 
6) Performance appraisals are used most widely as a basis for:
a.determining training needs.
b.discharging decisions.
c.deciding compensation.
d.directing performance improvement.
 
7) The strategic relevance of performance appraisals refers to:
a.the extent to which standards relate to the overall objectives of the organization.
b.the extent to which standards capture the entire range of an employee's responsibilities.
c.the extent to which individuals tend to maintain a certain level of performance over time.
d.the extent to which factors outside the employee's control can influence performance.
 
8) If a performance standard is found to be stable or consistent over time, it is said to be:
a.free from contamination.
b.relevant.
c.reliable.
d.valid.
 
9) Reliability in performance appraisal is measured by:
a.correlating two sets of ratings made by different raters
b.correlating the ratings of an employee at two different points in time
c.linking performance standards to organizational goals
d.quantifiable performance standards
 
10) Self-appraisals are best for:
a.administrative purposes.
b.developmental purposes.
c.promotional purposes.
d.regulatory purposes.
 
11) One advantage of peer appraisals is that:
a.peers are less politically motivated than supervisors.
b.peers may furnish more accurate and valid information than supervisors.
c.peers may work harder to help other employees improve performance.
d.peers are often partially responsible for the performance of other co-workers.
 
12) A performance-rating error in which the appraiser is reluctant to give employees either unusually high or unusually low ratings is referred to as a:
a.recency error
b.error of central tendency
c.leniency or strictness error
d.halo error
 
13) A performance-rating error in which the appraiser tends to give employees either unusually high or unusually low ratings is referred to as a:
a.recency error
b.error of central tendency
c.leniency or strictness error
d.halo error
 
14) Which method of performance appraisal requires managers to place a certain percentage of employees into various performance categories?
a.forced-distribution method
b.checklist method
c.percent method
d.forced-choice method
 
15) If you rate an average employee's performance high because you compared the employee to poor performers, you are committing a:
a.leniency error.
b.contrast error.
c.recency error.
d.central tendency error.
 
16) The primary limitation of the forced-choice method of appraisal is:
a.that it is expensive to initially develop.
b.that only highly trained raters can use the format.
c.that it does not lend itself to peer and self-ratings.
d.the cost of establishing and maintaining its validity.
 
17) Which of the following appraisal methods helps guard against recency error?
a.critical incident
b.forced-choice method
c.graphic rating scales
d.mixed-standard scale
 
18) The type of scale that uses critical incidents as examples of different points along the scale is known as:
a.the mixed-standard scale.
b.the global rating.
c.the behaviorally anchored rating scale.
d.dimensional rating.
 
19) A performance appraisal approach designed to measure how frequently employees exhibit certain behaviors is:
a.management by objectives.
b.behaviorally anchored rating scales.
c.a behavior observation scale.
d.a trait scale.
 
20) If an appraisal focuses on a narrow set of results criteria to the exclusion of other important process issues, the system may suffer from:
a.criterion deficiency
b.rater bias
c.lack of reliability
d.criterion contamination
 
21) The appraisal system that takes into account financial, customer, processes, and learning categories is called:
a.balanced scorecard approach
b.360-degree
c.customer-oriented approach
d.management by objectives
 
22) The appraisal interview should be divided into two sessions, one each for:
a.positive comments and negative comments
b.performance review and developmental planning
c.performance review and compensation discussion
d.establishing performance standards and reviewing performance
 
23) As a rule of thumb, a supervisor should spend approximately ____ percent of the time talking during an appraisal interview.
a.10 to 15
b.20 to 25
c.30 to 35
d.40 to 45
 
24) An inappropriate interview technique in which praise serves to cushion criticism by alternating positive statements with negative statements is known as:
a.the sandwich technique.
b.the cushioning technique.
c.the rollercoaster technique.
d.sympathetic interviewing.
 
25) A new process used by some companies to make sure managers are rating employees consistently is called ___________.
a.cross-referencing
b.authentication
c.mentoring
d.calibration
 
Chapter 9
TRUE/FALSE
 
1) Nonexempt employees are not covered by overtime requirements under the Fair Labor Standards Act and are therefore nonexempt.
a) True
b) False
2) Nonexempt employees are covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act and must be paid at the rate of 1-1/2 times their regular pay rate for hours worked over 40 in the workweek.
a) True
b) False
3) Exempt employees are not covered by the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act.
a) True
b) False
4) Real wages represent the difference between wage increases and cost-of-living increases.
a) True
b) False
5) The job ranking system ranks jobs on the basis of relative worth and can be done by a single person familiar with all jobs.
a) True
b) False
6) The point system of job evaluation permits jobs to be evaluated quantitatively based on compensable factors.
a) True
b) False
7) Compensable factors include skills, effort, responsibilities, and working conditions.
a) True
b) False
8) Using job evaluation and wage survey data jointly improves the likelihood of both internal and external equity.
a) True
b) False
9) Steps within a rate range allow pay increases based on merit or seniority.
a) True
b) False
10) Red circle rates are above the maximum for the pay range and are often frozen until the range shifts upward due to inflation.
a) True
b) False
11) When time off is given in exchange for overtime work, it must be given hour-for-hour of the number of hours worked overtime.
a) True
b) False
12) Comparable worth is based on the idea that women and men performing similar jobs should be paid similar wages.
a) True
b) False
 
MULTIPLE CHOICE
 
13) The fact that people make comparisons to others is central to:
a.expectancy theory
b.the need for pay secrecy
c.pay-for-performance programs
d.equity theory
 
14) Employees covered by the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act are labeled:
a.protected workers.
b.nonexempt employees.
c.salaried workers.
d.exempt employees.
 
15) Clauses found in labor agreements that periodically adjust compensation rates upward to help employees maintain their purchasing power are known as:
a.maintenance clauses.
b.escalator clauses.
c.roll-up clauses.
d.guarantee clauses.
 
16) Job evaluation helps to establish:
a.job classifications
b.the organization's ability to pay
c.internal equity
d.labor market conditions that affect pay
 
17) Which system of job evaluation is being used when jobs are classified according to a series of predetermined wage grades?
a.Hay profile method
b.job ranking
c.factor comparison method
d.job classification system
 
18) Elements of the job such as skills, effort, responsibilities, and working conditions are referred to as:
a.job specifications
b.job classification factors
c.compensable factors
d.factor comparisons
 
19) Which job evaluation system serves to direct compensation dollars to the type of work pivotal to organizational goals?
a.the point method.
b.job ranking.
c.work valuation
d.the Hay profile method.
 
20) Wage survey data will normally be collected with the use of:
a.low-rated jobs.
b.key jobs.
c.high-rated jobs.
d.strategic jobs.
 
21) The predominant approach to employee compensation is:
a.pay-for-performance
b.competence-based pay
c.job-based pay
d.individual contract
 
22) The federal wage law that is criticized for a rule that allows minimum pay to be based on the prevailing rate, which often includes higher, union wages, is:
a.Equal Pay Act.
b.Davis-Bacon Act.
c.Fair Labor Standards Act.
d.Walsh-Healy Act.
 
Chapter 10
TRUE/FALSE
 
1) Standard hour plans are based on specific production standards set for individual jobs.
a) True
b) False
2) The operation of a merit pay plan depends on the effectiveness of the performance appraisal system.
a) True
b) False
3) Lump-sum merit pay does not contribute to escalating base salary levels.
a) True
b) False
 
MULTIPLE CHOICE
 
4) Incentive systems fail when:
a.payout formulas are too simple
b.employees have little ability to affect performance standards
c.financial rewards are linked to work behavior
d.incentives are clearly not perceived as entitlements
 
5) Piecework is appropriate when:
a.technology changes are frequent
b.quality is more important than quantity
c.productivity standards are difficult to develop
d.the job is fairly standardized
 
6) In order for organizations to minimize the problems of merit raises, they should use:
a.labor market comparisons.
b.employee input.
c.merit guidelines.
d.the opinions of several managers.
 
7) Merit increases on a lump-sum basis have the advantage of:
a.they do not contribute to escalating base salary levels
b.adding a permanent sum to base salary
c.they are done in conjunction with promotions
d.they reflect annual adjustments in base salary
 
8) A compensation plan that compensates sales employees based on a percentage of sales is known as a:
a.straight ratio plan.
b.straight salary plan.
c.straight commission plan.
d.straight bonus plan.
 
9) The greatest influence on executive base salary is most likely:
a.the amount of short-term incentives received.
b.the amount of long-term incentives received.
c.the levels of competitive salaries in the job market.
d.the time spent in the occupation.
 
10) Compensation of the highest-paid executives in the United States is typically in the form of:
a.base salary.
b.long-term incentives.
c.short-term incentives.
d.perquisites.
 
11) Special benefits given to executive employees, such as assigned chauffeurs, country club memberships, and special vacation policies, are known as:
a.executive rewards
b.perquisites
c.golden parachutes
d.assigned benefits
 
12) The gainsharing plan that has as its most significant feature effective employee participation through committee representation is:
a.profit sharing.
b.the Rucker Plan.
c.the Scanlon Plan.
d.Improshare.
 
13) The bonus given to employees under Improshare differs from that given under the Scanlon Plan in that:
a.it is based on individual merit.
b.it is based on productivity gains resulting from a reduction in production time.
c.it is based on dollar savings.
d.the organization does not share in the gains.
 
14) A popular and prevalent method used in many different industries for motivating and compensating hourly, salaried, and executive personnel is:
a.Rucker Plan
b.Stock options
c.Scanlon Plan
d.perquisites
 
15) Noncash incentive rewards are most effective as motivators when the award:
a.is a complete surprise to the recipient
b.is combined with a meaningful employee recognition program
c.grows every year it is given
d.is tailored to individual employees

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